ETS最新真题150完整VerbalSection混编版
great是什么意思-小学四年级科学教案
新GRE考试最新真题150 –
Verbal
Section混编版(V 1.0)
2014.8.28
1
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前言
这是自GRE考试有史以来，ETS通过官方的方式第一次在
OG以外大量释放最
新考试题目，以供学生练习。GRE考试历来因为练习材料太少而遭到学生和培训机构诟病。这次发布的150道真题，是在OG和PP II，以及老GRE考试题目
之后，大家
在考场实战模拟的最好的素材。因此我们并不建议按照书上easy、
medium、hard和笔试p
ractice set的形式来完成这些练习。我们认为，只有将这
些题目有机的整合成接近机考的s
ection才能达到知己知彼、百战不殆，因此才
有了这个文件。
2014年8
月3日，当我知道ETS出品了真题150之后，我立刻联系了在美国工
作的本科同学蒋晴野，让他在亚
马逊上订购了Verbal和Quant各一本，并一张一
张的拍照片传回给我。当我看到这些题目都没
有逃出我们强化班、精讲精练班的
练习范围，我又松了一口气：短期培训的教师最害怕的就是，一句不负
责任的
“技巧”坑害了学生，造成了难以弥补的遗憾。而我们立刻快马加鞭的分析试
题，并融入
新的教学之中，这样的反应速度也再一次证明了北京新东方新GRE
教师团队的力量：我们一直走在GR
E考试的最前沿。
今年秋季的强化班和精讲精练班的课程，这部分真题将是我们在OGPP
II和大
量的GRE考试机经后，支撑我们教学的又一利器，相信我们一道道深入的解
读，一定
能给在茫然备考中的你提供帮助。
由于排版、录入仓促，有些许错误难免。如果同学们发现
了错误，还请包容、海
涵、斧正，可以用任何方式与我联系，邮箱：hanbing7@
微信订阅号：
gredianti，我们会在后续的修订版本中加入你的名字并深深的感谢。
最后感谢这本小试题册的排版员谢雨辰老师，感谢在暑假期间课程繁忙仍然抽空
录入文字的潘晨
光、付蔷、刘臣钢老师，感谢北京新东方G神团队为新东方
GRE项目注入的新鲜活力。
在GRE的备考中，我们与你同在，所以你才不孤独。
Bing HAN@XDF
2014.8.28
2
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Graduate Record Examination
Mock Test 1
2 Verbal
Reasoning Sections
Time: 60 minutes
3
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 1 of 2
SECTION 1
Verbal Reasoning
Time—30
minutes
20 Questions
For questions 1 to 6,
select one entry for each blank from the
corresponding
column of choices. Fill all
blanks in the way that best completes the text.
1. The composer has never courted popularity:
her rugged modernism seems to defy
rather than
to ______ the audience.
(A) ignore
(B)
discount
(C) woo
(D) teach
(E) cow
2. The sight of a single actor portraying
several characters in the same scene is no
longer a shock to the average moviegoer, such
special- effects trickery having become
so
______.
(A) expensive
(B) specialized
(C) sinister
(D) commonplace
(E)
unreliable
3. The figure-skating pair’s
convincing victory last week was particularly
(i)______
to their rivals who were in peak
form and complained privately about the judging.
That
the pair won when their rivals were
(ii)______ too is also impressive.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A) unsurprising
(B) irksome
(C) gratifying
(D)
terrific
(E) nervous
(F) inconsistent
4
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 1 of 2
4.
In his initial works, the playwright made physical
disease (i)______ factor in the
action; from
this, his early critics inferred that he had a
predilection for focusing on
(ii)______
subject matter.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A) a pivotal (D) recondite
(E)
uncomplicated
(F) morbid
(B) a nonexistent
(C) an obscure
5. We have yet to
(i)______ the assessment of Canada’s biodiversity.
Most of the
vertebrates have been assessed,
but our challenge will be the assessment of
invertebrates and plants. This task is
(ii)______ not only because of the high number of
species, but also because of the diversity,
each species requiring a different approach.
Blank(ii)
Blank(ii)
(A)
initiate
(B) complete
(C) limit
(D) repetitious
(E) trivial
(F)
daunting
6. The company’s efforts to improve
safety were apparently (i)______, at least
according to the company’s own data, which
showed that the (ii)______ incidents with
the
potential to cause a serious accident declined
significantly. Nevertheless,
independent
analysts argue that those statistics are
(iii)______. These analysts maintain
that the
company has consistently underestimated both the
probability and the likely
effects of
accidents in the sensitive and poorly understood
environment in which the
company is operating.
Blank(ii)
Blank(ii)
Blank(iii)
(A) innovative
(B) successful
(C) frustrated
(D) frequency of
(E) impediments to
(F) attention to
(G) deceptive
(H) testable
(I)
consistent
5
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 1 of 2
For
each of Questions 7 to 11, select one answer
choice unless otherwise directed.
Question 7
and 8 are based on this passage.
Ragwort was accidentally introduced to New
Zealand in the late nineteenth
century and,
like so many invading foreign species, quickly
became a pest. By the
1920s, the weed was
rampant. What made matters worse was that its
proliferation
coincided with sweeping changes
in agriculture and a massive shift from sheep
farming
to dairying. Ragwort contains the
poison in dilute form. Livestock generally avoid
grazing where ragwort is growing, but they
will do so once it displaces grass and
clover
in their pasture. Though sheep can eat it for
months before showing any signs of
illness, if
cattle eat it they sicken quickly and fatality can
even result.
7. The passage suggests that
the proliferation of ragwort was particularly ill-
timed
because it
(A) coincided with and
exacerbated a decline in agriculture.
(B) took
place in conditions that enabled the ragwort to
spread faster than it otherwise
would have
done.
(C) led to an increase in the amount of
toxic compounds contained in the plants.
(D)
prevented people from producing honey that could
be eaten safely.
(E) had consequences for
livestock that were more dramatic than they
otherwise
would have been.
Consider
each of the choices separately and select all that
apply.
8. The passage implies which of the
following about the problems ragwort poses to
dairy farmers?
(A) Milk produced by cows
that eat ragwort causes illness in humans who
drink it.
(B) Ragwort can supplant the plants
normally eaten by cattle.
(C) Cattle, unlike
sheep, are unable to differentiate between ragwort
and healthy
grazing.
6
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 1 of 2
Question 9 is based on this passage.
Despite the fact that the health-inspection
procedure for catering establishments
are more
stringent than those for ordinary restaurant, more
of the cases of food
poisoning reported to the
city health department were brought on by banquets
served
by catering services than were brought
on by restaurant meals.
9. Which of the
following, if true, helps explain the apparent
paradox in the statement
above?
(A) A
significantly large number of people eat in
restaurants than attend catered
banquets in
any given time period.
(B) Catering
establishments know how many people they expect to
serve, and
therefore are less likely than
restaurants to have, and serve, leftover foods, a
major
source of food poisoning.
(C) Many
restaurant provide catering services for banquets
in addition to serving
individual meals.
(D) The number of reported food-poisoning
cases at catered banquets is unrelated to
whether the meal is served on the caterer’s or
the client’s premises.
(E) People are unlikely
to make a connection between a meal they have
eaten and a
subsequent illness unless the
illness strikes a group who are in communication
with one
another.
7
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 1 of 2
Questions 10 and 11 are based on this passage.
African American newspapers in the 1930s faced
many hardships. For instance,
knowing that
buyers of African American papers also bough
general-circulation papers,
advertisers of
consumer products often ignored African American
publications.
Advertisers’ discrimination did
free the African American press from advertiser
domination. Editors could print politically
charged material more readily than could the
large national dailies, which depended on
advertisers’ ideological approval to secure
revenues. Unfortunately, it also made the
selling price of Black papers much higher
than
that of general-circulation dailies. Often as much
as two-thirds of publication costs
had to come
from subscribers or subsidies from community
politicians and other
interest groups. And
despite their editorial freedom, African American
publishers often
felt compelled to print a
disproportionate amount of sensationalism, sports,
and society
news to boost circulation.
Consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply.
10. The passage suggest
that if advertisers had more frequently purchased
advertising
in African American newspapers,
then which of the following might have resulted?
(A) African American newspapers would have
given more attention to sports and
society
news than they did.
(B) African American
newspapers would have been available at lower
prices than
large national dailies were.
(C) African American newspapers would have
experienced constraints on their
content
similar to those experienced by large national
dailies
11. The author of the passage
suggests which of the following about the
“advertisers”
mentioned in the passage?
(A) They assumed that advertising in African
American newspapers would not
significantly
increase the sales of their products.
(B) They
failed to calculate accurately the circulation of
African American
newspapers.
(C) They did
not take African Americans’ newspaper reading into
account when
making decisions about where to
advertise.
(D) They avoided African American
newspapers partly because of their
sensationalism.
(E) They tried to persuade
African American newspapers to lower the rates
charged
for advertising.
8
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 1 of 2
For
questions 12 to 15, select the two answer choices
that, when used to complete
the sentence, fit
the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce
completed
sentences that are alike in meaning.
12. In The simple Soybean, the author is much
less restrained in his enthusiasm for
the
bean’s medical efficacy than he is in his
technical writings, but he still cautions
against treating soy as a ______.
(A)
staple
(B) supplement
(C) herald
(D)
panacea
(E) cure-all
(F) harbinger
13. Parkin’s characterization of the movement
as Neo-Scholastic is too ______ to be
accepted
without further investigation.
(A) cursory
(B) detailed
(C) perfunctory
(D)
biased
(E) self-evident
(F) complete
14. A recent study suggests that vitamin E
supplements, despite widespread belief in
their ______, are no better than sugar pills
for delaying the onset of the degenerative
disease.
(A) potential
(B) misuse
(C) popularity
(D) efficacy
(E)
prevalence
(F) usefulness
9
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 1 of 2
15.
Despite her relaxed and flexible style, Ms. de la
Fressange is ______
businesswoman who knows to
market her brand: herself.
(A) a ruthless
(B) a creative
(C) a canny
(D) an
industrious
(E) a shrewd
(F) an effective
For each of Questions 16 to 20, select
one answer choice unless otherwise directed.
Question 16 is based on the passage.
Years ago, consumers in Frieland began paying
an energy tax in the form of two
Frieland
pennies for each unit of energy consumed that came
from nonrenewable
sources. Following the
introduction of this energy tax, there was a
steady reduction in
the total yearly
consumption of energy from nonrenewable sources.
16. If the statements in the passage are
true, then which of the following must on the
basis of them be true?
(A) There was a
steady decline in the yearly revenues generated by
the energy tax in
Frieland.
(B) There was
a steady decline in the total amount of energy
consumed each year in
Frieland.
(C) There
was a steady increase in the use of renewable
energy source in Frieland.
(D) The revenues
generated by the energy tax were used to promote
the use of energy
from renewable sources.
(E) The use of renewable energy sources in
Frieland greatly increased relative to the
use
of nonrenewable energy sources.
10
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 1 of 2
Question 17 to 19 are based on this passage.
In a plausible but speculative scenario,
oceanographer Douglas Martinson
suggests that
temperature increases caused by global warming
would not significantly
affect the stability
of the Antarctic environment, where sea ice forms
on the periphery
of the continent in the
autumn and winter and mostly disappears in the
summer. True,
less sea ice would form in the
winter because global warming would cause
temperature
to rise. However, Martinson
argues, the effect of a warmer atmosphere may be
offset as
follows. The formation of sea ice
causes the concentration of salt in surface water
to
increase; less sea 1ce would mean a smaller
increase in the concentration of salt. Less
salty surface waters would be less dense and
therefore less likely to sink and stir up
deep• water. The deep water, with all its
stored heat, would rise to the surface at a
slower rate. Thus, although the winter sea-ice
cover might decrease, the surface waters
would
remain cold enough so that the decrease would not
be excessive.
17. It can be inferred from
the passage that which of the following is true of
the
surface waters in the current Antarctic
environment?
(A) They are more affected by
annual fluctuations in atmospheric temperatures
than
they would be if they were less salty..
(B) They are less salty than they would be if
global warming were to occur.
(C) They are
more likely to sink and stir up deep waters than
they would be if
atmospheric temperatures were
to increase.
(D) They are able to offset some
of the effects of global warming beyond the
Antarctic
region.
(E) They are less
affected by the temperature of deep water than
they would be if
atmospheric temperatures were
to increase.
18. The passage suggests
that Martinson believes which of the following
about deep
waters in the Antarctic region?
(A) They rise to the surface more quickly than
they would if global warming were to
occur.
(B) They store heat that will exacerbate the
effects of increases in atmospheric
temperatures.
(C) They would be likely to
be significantly warmed by an increase in
atmospheric
temperatures.
(D) They would
be more salty than they currently are if global
warming were to occur.
(E) They are less
likely to be stirred up when surface waters are
intensely salty than
when surface waters are
relatively unsalty.
11
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 1 of 2
19.
According to the passage, which of the following
is true about the sea ice that
surrounds the
Antarctic continent?
(A) The amount of sea ice
that forms in the winter has been declining.
(B) Most of the sea ice that forms in the
winter remains intact in the summer.
(C) Even
small changes in the amount of sea ice
dramatically affect the temperature of
the
surface waters.
(D) Changes in the amount of
sea ice due to global warming would significantly
affect
the stability of the Antarctic
environment.
(E) Changes in the amount of sea
ices affect the degree of saltiness of the surface
waters.
Question 20 is based on this
passage.
The plant called the scarlet gilia can have
either red or white flowers. It had long
been
thought that hummingbirds, which forage by day,
pollinate its red flowers and that
hawkmoths,
which forage at night, pollinate its white
flowers. To try to show that this
pattern of
pollination by color exists. Scientists recently
covered some scarlet gilia
flowers only at
night and others only by day: plants with red
flowers covered at night
became pollinated;
plants with white flowers covered by day became
pollinated.
20. Which of the following,
if true, would be additional evidence to suggest
that
hummingbirds are attracted to the red
flowers and hawkmoths to the white flowers of
the scarlet gilia?
(A) Uncovered scarlet
gilia flowers, whether red or white, became
pollinated at
approximately equal rates.
(B) Some red flowers of the scarlet gilia that
remained uncovered at all times never
became
pollinated.
(C) White flowers of the scarlet
gilia that were covered at night became pollinated
with greater frequency than white flowers of
the scarlet gilia that were left uncovered.
(D) Scarlet gilia plants with red flowers
covered by day and scarlet gilia plants with
white flowers covered at night remained
unpalliated.
(E) In late August, when most of
the hummingbirds had migrated but hawkmoths
were still plentiful, red scarlet gilia plants
produced fruits more frequently than they
had
earlier in the season.
STOP. This is
the end of Section 1.
12
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 2 of 2
SECTION 2
Verbal Reasoning
Time—30
minutes
20 Questions
For questions 1 to 6,
select one entry for each blank from the
corresponding
column of choices. Fill all
blanks in the way that best completes the text.
1. Early studies often concluded that the
public was ______ the propagandistic
influence
of mass communications, but one recent study
indicates that, on the contrary,
mass
communications seldom produce marked changes in
social attitudes or actions.
(A) unaware of
(B) scornful of
(C) susceptible to
(D)
unimpressed by
(E) coping with
2. In
the recent history of the Renaissance, by showing
how the artistic efflorescence
of that era was
(i)______ linked to its commercial vitality,
Jardine demonstrated that
the spirit of
acquisitiveness may be (ii)______ that of cultural
creativity.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A) questionably
(B) intimately
(C) skeptically
(D)
threatened by
(E) inseparable from
(F)
comparable to
3. The setting in which the
concert took place (i)______: the group’s
performance
was elegant and polished, but the
sound, which seeped across the cold, unresonant
high
school auditorium, was oddly (ii)______,
given the energy the players seemed to be
putting into it.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A) exacted a toll (D) clangorous
(E)
tepid
(F) inviting
(B) encouraged
nervousness
(C) solved a dilemma
13
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 2 of 2
4.
The governor has long been obsessed with exciting
the media from the politician-
public
relationship. That’s been the unifying aim of all
her seemingly disconnected
ventures since
entering public life: a determination to
(i)______, and eventually
(ii)______, the
media’s hold on political communication.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A) conceal
(B) erode
(D)
augment
(E) consolidate
(F) end (C)
rejuvenate
5. Researchers trying to make
it possible to trace counterfeit documents to the
printer
that produced them are ((i)______ the
fact that the rotating drums and mirrors inside
laser printers are imperfect devices that
leave unique patterns of banding in their
output. Although these patterns are (ii)______
to the naked eye, they can be (iii)______
and
analyzed by computer programs that the researchers
have spent the past year
devising.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
Blank(iii)
(A) exploiting
(B) facing
(D) invisible
(E) obvious
(G)
detected
(H) implemented
(I) generated (C)
manipulating
(F) unappealing
6. In
her startlingly original writing, she went further
than any other twentieth
century author in
English (perhaps in any language) in (i)______
literary language and
form, (ii)______
stylistic conventions, and (iii)______ a rich and
diverse structure of
meaning.
Blank(ii)
Blank(ii)
Blank(iii)
(A)
reinventing
(B) canonizing
(C) stabilizing
(D) undoing (G) replicating
(H)
borrowing
(I) introducing
(E) overpraising
(F) misunderstanding
14
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 2 of 2
For
each of Questions 7 to 12, select one answer
choice unless otherwise directed.
Question 7
is based on this passage.
That sales can be increased by the presence of
sunlight within a store has been
shown by the
experience of the only Savefast department store
with a large skylight.
The skylight allows
sunlight into half of the store, reducing the need
for artificial light.
The rest of the store
uses only artificial light. Since the store opened
two years ago, the
departments on the sunlit
side have had substantially higher sales than the
other.
7. Which of the following, if
true, most strengthens the argument?
(A) On
particularly cloudy days, more artificial light is
used to illuminate the part of
the store under
the skylight.
(B) When the store is open at
night, the departments in the part of the store
under the
skylight have salves that are no
higher than those of other departments.
(C)
Many customers purchase items from departments in
both parts of the store on a
single shopping
trip.
(D) Besides the skylight, there are
several significant architectural differences
between
the two parts of the store.
(E)
The departments in the part of the store under the
skylight are the departments that
generally
have the highest sales in other stores in the
Savefast chain.
15
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 2 of 2
Questions 8 to 10 are based on this passage.
While the best sixteenth-century Renaissance
scholars mastered the classics of
ancient
Roman literature in the original Latin and
understood them in their original
historical
context, most of the scholar’s educated
contemporaries knew the classics
only from
school lessons on selected Latin texts. These were
chosen by Renaissance
teachers after much
deliberation, for works written by and for the
sophisticated adults
of pagan Rome were not
always considered suitable for the Renaissance
young: the
central Roman classics refused (as
classics often do) to teach appropriate morality
and
frequently suggested the opposite.
Teachers accordingly made students’ need, not
textual and historical accuracy, their supreme
interest, chopping dangerous texts into
short
phrases, and using these to impart lessons
extemporaneously on a variety of
subjects,
from syntax to science. Thus, I believe that a
modern reader cannot know the
associations
that a line of ancient Roman poetry or prose had
for any particular
educated sixteenth-century
reader.
8. The passage is primarily
concerned with discussing the
(A)
unsuitability of the Roman classics for the
teaching of morality
(B) approach that
sixteenth-century scholars took to learning the
Roman classics
(C) effect that the Roman
classics had on educated people in the Renaissance
(D) way in which the Roman classics were
taught in the sixteenth-century
(E) contrast
between the teaching of the Roman classics in the
Renaissance and the
teaching of the Roman
classics today
9. The information in the
passage suggests that which of the following would
most
likely result from a student’s having
studied the Roman classics under a typical
sixteenth-century teacher?
(A) The student
recalls a line of Roman poetry in conjunction with
a point learned
about grammar.
(B) The
student argues that a Roman poem about gluttony is
not morally offensive
when it is understood in
its historical context.
(C) The student is
easily able to express thoughts in Latin.
(D)
The: student has mastered large portions of the
Roman classics.
(E) The student has a
sophisticated knowledge of Roman poetry but little
knowledge
of Roman prose.
16
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 2 of 2
10.
Which of the following, if true, would most
seriously weaken the assertion made
in the
passage concerning what a modern reader cannot
know?
(A) Some modern readers are thoroughly
familiar with the classics of ancient Roman
literature because they majored in classics in
college or obtained doctoral degrees in
classics.
(B) Some modern readers have
learned which particular works of Roman literature
were taught to students in the sixteenth
century.
(C) Modern readers can, with some
effort, discover that sixteenth-century teachers
selected some seemingly dangerous classical
texts while excluding other seemingly
innocuous texts.
(D) Copies of many of the
classical texts used by sixteenth-century
teachers, including
marginal notes describing
the oral lessons that were based on the texts, can
be found in
museums today.
(E) Many of
the writings of the best sixteenth-century
Renaissance scholars have been
translated from
Latin and are available to modern readers.
Question 11 and 12 are based on this passage.
In humans, the pilomotor reflex leads to the
response commonly known as goose
bumps, and
this response is wildly considered to be
vestigial—that is, something
formerly having a
greater physiological advantage that at present.
It occurs when the
tiny muscle at the base of
a hair follicle contracts, pulling the hair
upright. In animals
with feathers, fur, or
quills, this create a layer of insulating warm air
or a reason for
predators to think twice
before attacking. But human hair is too puny to
serve these
functions. Goose bumps in humans
may, however, have acquired a new role. Like
flushing—another thermoregulatory (heat-
regulating) mechanism—goose bumps have
become
linked with emotional responses, notably fear,
rage, or the pleasure of, say,
listening to
beautiful music. They may thus serve as a signal
to others.
11. In explaining the “new
role” that goose bumps in human may have acquired,
the
author assumes which of the following?
(A) Emotional responses in humans can be
triggered by thermoregulatory
mechanisms.
(B) The perceptibility of emotional responses
to other human offers some kind of
benefit.
(C) If human hair were more substantial, goose
bumps would not have acquired a new
role.
(D) Goose bumps in animals with feathers, fur,
or quills may also be linked to
emotional
responses.
(E) In humans, goose bumps
represent an older physiological response than
flushing.
17
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 2 of 2
12.
Which of the following best describes the primary
function of the next-to-last
sentence (“Like …
music”)?
(A) It makes a distinction between
two types of mechanisms.
(B) It corrects a
common misconception about the role of goose bumps
in humans.
(C) It suggests reasons for the
connection between emotional responses and goose
bumps in human.
(D) It suggests that
flushing and goose bumps signal the same emotional
state.
(E) It helps explain a possible role
played by goose bumps in humans.
For
questions 13 to 16, select the two answer choices
that, when used to complete
the sentence, fit
the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce
completed
sentences that are alike in meaning.
13. If researchers can determine exactly what
is wrong with people who suffer from
this
condition, they may be able to suggest drug
therapies or other treatments that could
______ the effects of the damage.
(A)
mitigate
(B) exacerbate
(C) specify
(D) identify
(E) ameliorate
(F)
stabilize
14. Some analysts worry about
consumers’ perception that the electronics
industry is
always on the verge of major
breakthroughs; that perception could hurt the
industry by
making consumers reluctant to buy
products they believe will soon be ______.
(A)
incompatible
(B) devalued
(C) obsolete
(D) ubiquitous
(E) everywhere
(F)
outmoded
18
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 2 of 2
15.
After people began to make the transition from
gathering food to producing food,
human
societies followed markedly ______ courses; some
adopted herding, others took
to tillage, and
still others stuck to foraging.
(A) divergent
(B) rural
(C) novel
(D) unfamiliar
(E) disparate
(F) quotidian
16.
At nearly 450 pages, the novel is ______ : the
author does not often resist the
temptation to
finish off a chapter, section, or even paragraph
with some unnecessary
flourish.
(A)
instructive
(B) complex
(C) prolix
(D)
educational
(E) long-waited
(F) explicit
19
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 2 of 2
For
each of Questions 17 to 20, select one answer
choice unless otherwise directed.
Questions 17
to 20 are based on this passage.
The passage is adapted from material published
in 2001.
Frederick Douglass was unquestionably
the most famous African American of the
nineteenth century; indeed, when he died in
1895 he was among the most distinguished
public figures in the United States. In his
study of Douglass’ career as a major figure in
the movement to abolish slavery and as a
spokesman for Black rights, Waldo Martin
has
provoked controversy by contending that Douglass
also deserves a prominent place
in the
intellectual history of the United States because
he exemplified so many strand
of nineteenth-
century thought: romanticism, idealism,
individualism, liberal humanism,
and an
unshakable belief in progress. But this very
argument provides ammunition for
those who
claim that most of Douglass’ ideas, being so
representative of their time, are
now
obsolete. Douglass’ vision of the future as a
melting pot in which all racial and
ethnic
differences would dissolve into “a composite
American nationality” appears
from the
pluralist perspective of many present-day
intellectuals to be not only utopian
but even
wrongheaded. Yet there is a central aspect of
Douglass’ thought that seems not
in the least
bit dated or irrelevant to current concerns. He
has no rival in the history of
the nineteenth-
century United States as an insistent and
effective critic of the doctrine
of innate
racial inequality. He not only attacked racist
ideas in his speeches and
writings, but he
offered his entire career and all his achievements
as living proof that
racists were wrong in
their belief that one race could be inherently
superior to another.
While Martin stresses
Douglass’ antiracist egalitarianism, he does not
adequately
explain how this aspect of
Douglass’ thought fits in with his espousal of the
liberal
Victorian attitudes that many present-
day intellectuals consider to be naïve and
outdated. The fact is that Douglass was
attracted to these democratic-capitalist ideals of
his time because they could be used to attack
slavery and the doctrine of White
supremacy.
His favorite rhetorical strategy was to expose the
hypocrisy of those who,
while professing
adherence to the ideals of democracy and equality
of opportunity,
condoned slavery and racial
discrimination. It would have been strange indeed
if he
had not embraced liberal idealism,
because it proved its worth for the cause of
racial
equality during the national crisis
that eventually resulted in emancipation and
citizenship for African Americans. These
points may seem obvious, but had Martin
given
them more attention, his analysis might have
constituted a more convincing
rebuttal to
those critics who dismiss Douglass’ ideology as a
relic of the past. If one
accepts the
proposition that Douglass’ deepest commitment was
to Black equality and
that he used the liberal
ideals of his time as weapons in the fight for
that cause, then it
is hard to fault him for
seizing the best weapons at hand.
17. The
passage as a whole can best be described as doing
which of the following?
(A) Explaining
Douglass’ emergence as a major figure in the
movement to abolish
slavery.
(B) Tracing
the origins of Douglass’ thought in nineteenth-
century romanticism,
idealism, and liberal
humanism
(C) Analyzing Douglass’ speeches and
writings from a modern, pluralist perspective
(D) Criticizing Martin for failing to stress
the contradiction between Douglass’
principles
and the liberal Victorian attitudes of his day
(E) Formulating a response to who consider
Douglass’ political philosophy to be
archaic
and irrelevant
20
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GRE Mock Test 1: Section 2 of 2
18.
It can be inferred that the “present-day
intellectuals” believed that
(A) although
Douglass used democratic-capitalist ideals to
attack slavery and racial
inequality, he did
not sincerely believe in those ideas.
(B) the
view that Douglass was representative of the
intellectual trends of his time is
obsolete
(C) Douglass’ opposition to the doctrine of
innate racial inequality is irrelevant to
current concern
(D) Douglass’ commitment
to Black equality does not adequately account for
his
naïve attachment to quaint liberal
Victorian political views.
(E) Douglass’ goal
of ultimately doing way with all racial and ethnic
differences is
neither achievable nor
desirable
19. According to the passage,
Douglass used which of the following as evidence
against the doctrine of innate racial
inequality?
(A) His own life story
(B) His
version of a composite American nationality
(C) The hypocrisy of self-professed liberal
idealists
(D) The inevitability of the
emancipation of African Americans
(E) The fact
that most prominent intellectuals advocated the
abolition of slavery
20. Each of the
following is mentioned in the passage as an
element of Douglass’
ideology EXCEPT
(A)
idealism
(B) egalitarianism
(C) capitalism
(D) pluralism
(E) humanism
STOP. This is the end of Section 2.
21
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GRE Mock Test 2
Graduate Record Examination
Mock
Test 2
2 Verbal Reasoning
Sections
Time: 60 minutes
22
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 1 of 2
SECTION 1
Verbal Reasoning
Time—30
minutes
20 Questions
For questions 1 to 6,
select one entry for each blank from the
corresponding
column of choices. Fill all
blanks in the way that best completes the text.
1. The media once portrayed the governor as
anything but ineffective; they now,
however,
make her out to be the epitome of ______.
(A)
fecklessness
(B) brilliance
(C) dynamism
(D) egoism
(E) punctiliousness
2.
For most of the first half of the nineteenth
century, science at the university was in
______ state, despite the presence of numerous
luminaries.
(A) a scintillating
(B) a
pathetic
(C) a controversial
(D) an
incendiary
(E) a veracious
3. Instant
celebrity is often (i)______ asset because if
there is no (ii)______ to
interest the
public—no stage or screen triumphs, no interesting
books, no heroic
exploits—people quickly
become bored.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A) a fleeting (D)
competing attraction
(E) continuity of
exposure
(F) real achievement
(B) an
incomparable
(C) an untapped
23
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 1 of 2
4.
Female labor was essential to the growth of
eighteenth-century European textile
industries, yet it remains difficult to
(i)______. Despite significant (ii)______ in
research about women, the role of female labor
remains the single most glaring
omission in
most economic analyses of the history of European
industrialization.
Women far outnumbered men
as workers in the textile industries, yet wage
indices and
discussions of growth, cost of
living, and the like (iii)______ about the male
labor
force.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
Blank(iii)
(A) track (D) advances
(E) gaps
(G)
incorporate data only
(H) suppress most
information
(I) too rarely talk
(B)
overestimate
(C) ignore
(F)
disinterest
5. It is a sad but just indictment
of some high school history textbooks that they
frequently report as (i)______ claims that
historians hotly debate or that are even
completely (ii)______ by (iii)______ primary
sources.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
Blank(iii)
(A) factual (D) resolved
(G) dubious
(H) incomplete
(I) reliable
(B) controversial
(C) sensational
(E) corroborated
(F) contradicted
6. The reason minimum temperatures are going
up more rapidly than maximums
may involve
cloud cover and evaporative cooling. Clouds tend
to keep the days coolers
by reflecting
sunlight, and the nights warmer by (i)______ loss
of heat from Earth’s
surface. Greater amounts
of moisture in the soil from additional
precipitation and
cloudiness (ii)______ the
daytime temperature increases because part of the
solar
energy is (iii)______ the evaporation of
that moisture.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
Blank(iii)
(A) inhibiting (D)
augment
(E) mask
(G) intensified by
(H) unrelated to
(I) used up in
(B)
exacerbating
(C) replicating
(F)
restrain
24
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 1 of 2
For
each of Questions 7 to 11, select one answer
choice unless otherwise directed.
Question 7
and 8 are based on this passage.
Supernovas in the Milks Ways are the likeliest
source for most of the cosmic rays
reaching
Earth. However, calculations show that supernovas
cannot produce ultrahigh-
energy cosmic rays
(UHECRs), which have energies exceeding 1018
electron volts. It
would seem sensible to seek
the source of these in the universe’s most
conspicuous
energy factories: quasars and
gamma-ray bursts billions of light-years away from
Earth. But UHECRs tend to collide with photons
of the cosmic microwave
background—pervasive
radiation that is relic of the early universe. The
odds favor a
collision every 20 million light-
years, each collision costing 20 percent of the
cosmic
ray’s energy. Consequently, no cosmic
ray traveling much beyond 100 million
light-
years can retain the energy observed in
UHCERs.
Consider each of the choices
separately and select all that apply.
7. It
can be inferred that the author of the passage
would agree with which of the
follow about the
origin of UHECRs that reach Earth?
(A) The
origin is something other than supernovas in the
Milky Way.
(B) The origin is most likely
something other than very distant quasars or
gamma-ray
bursts.
(C) The origin is most
likely no more than a little over 100 million
light-years away
from Earth.
8. In
the context of the author’s argument, the last
sentence performs which of the
following
functions?
(A) It explains a criterion that
was employed earlier in the argument.
(B) it
shows that an apparently plausible position is
actually self-contradictory.
(C) It is a
conclusion drawn in the course of refuting a
potential explanation.
(D) It overturns an
assumption on which an opposing position depends.
(E) It states the main conclusion that the
author is seeking to establish.
25
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 1 of 2
Question 9 to 11 are based on this passage.
The massive influx of women cyclists—making up
at least a third of the total market—
was
perhaps the most striking and profound social
consequence of the mid-1890s
cycling boom.
Although the new, improved bicycle had appealed
immediately to a few
privileged women, its
impact would have been modest had it not attracted
a greater
cross section of the female
population. It soon became apparent that many of
these
pioneer women bicyclists had not taken
up the sport as an idle pastime. Rather, they
saw cycling as a noble cause to be promoted
among all women as a means to improve
the
general female condition. Not only would cycling
encourage healthy outdoor
exercise, they
reasoned, it would also hasten long-overdue dress
reform. To feminists,
the bicycle affirmed
nothing less than the dignity and equality of
women.
Consider each of the choices separately
and select all that apply.
9. Which of the
following statements about women cyclists is
supported by the
passage?
(A) The newly
improved bicycle of the mid-1890s appealed mostly
to women in a
privileged position.
(B) The
great majority of women in the mid-1890s
considered cycling an idle pastime.
(C) Women
bicyclists promoted cycling as a healthy form of
outdoor exercise.
Consider each of the
choices separately and select all that apply.
10. Which of the following does the passage
suggest about pioneer women cyclists?
(A) They
saw cycling as a means to promote the advancement
of women.
(B) They argued that cycling would
encourage women to get involved in a variety of
noble causes.
(C) They provided several
reasons for a cross section of the female
population to use
the bicycle.
11.
Which of the following best describes the function
of the second sentence
(“Although …
population”)?
(A) It corrects a common
misconception regarding the use of the bicycle in
the mid-
1890s
(B) It elaborates on a
claim made in the previous sentence regarding a
social
consequence of the cycling boom
(C)
It provides a context in which to understand the
increased popularity of bicycle
riding among
privileged women.
(D) It explains why cycling
attracted such a significant cross section of
women.
(E) It describes the demographic
characteristics of the consumer market for
bicycles
in the mid-1890s.
26
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 1 of 2
For
questions 12 to 15, select the two answer choices
that, when used to complete
the sentence, fit
the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce
completed
sentences that are alike in meaning.
12. Retrofitted with stabilizing devices, some
of which ______ its aesthetics, the
bridge has
been reopened, no longer prone to excessive
swaying but not quite the
breathtaking
structure it originally was.
(A) impair
(B) resist
(C) improve
(D) enhance
(E) restore
(F) compromise
13.
Although cosmic objects have struck Earth since
the planet’s very formation,
humanity has only
recently become aware of these events: two
centuries ago the idea
that objects orbiting
the Sun could collide with Earth was widely
______.
(A) ridiculed
(B) doubted
(C)
disseminated
(D) promulgated
(E)
marginalized
(F) disbelieved
14. That
people ______ the musical features of birdsongs
suggests that despite the
vast evolutionary
gulf between birds and mammals, songbirds and
humans share some
common auditory perceptual
abilities.
(A) mimic
(B) recognize
(C)
relish
(D) are confounded by
(E) can make
out
(F) are puzzled by
27
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 1 of 2
15.
Torpey’s study has turned a seemingly ______
topic, the passport, into a
fascinating one by
making an original contribution to the sociology
of the state.
(A) ironic
(B) banal
(C)
provocative
(D) witty
(E) insipid
(F)
stimulating
28
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 1 of 2
For
each of Questions 16 to 20, select one answer
choice unless otherwise directed.
Question 16
to 19 are based on the passage.
What causes a helix in nature to appear with
either a dextral (“right-handed,” or
clockwise) twist or a sinistral (“left-
handed,” or counterclockwise) twist is one of the
most intriguing puzzles in the science of
form. Most spiral-shaped snail species are
predominantly dextral. But at one time,
handedness (twist direction of the shell) was
equally distributed within some snail species
that have become predominantly dextral
or, in
a few species, predominantly sinistral. What
mechanisms control handedness and
keep left-
handedness rare?
It would seem unlikely that
evolution should discriminate against sinistral
snails if
sinistral and dextral snails are
exact mirror images, for any disadvantage that a
sinistral
twist in itself could confer on its
possessor is almost inconceivable. But left- and
right-
handed snails are not actually true
mirror images of one another. Their shapes are
noticeably different. Sinistral rarity might,
then, be a consequence of possible
disadvantages conferred by these other
concomitant structural features. In addition,
perhaps left- and right-handed snails cannot
mate with each other, having incompatible
twist directions. Presumably an individual of
the rarer form would have relative
difficulty
in finding a mate of the same hand, thus keeping
the rare form rare or
creating geographically
separated right- and left-handed populations.
But this evolutionary mechanism combining
dissymmetry, anatomy, and chance
does not
provide an adequate explanation of why right-
handedness should have
become predominant. It
does not explain, for example, why the infrequent
unions
between snails of opposing hands
produce fewer offspring of the rarer than the
commoner form in species where each parent
contributes equally to handedness. Nor
does it
explain why, in a species where one parent
determines handedness,a brood is
not
exclusively right- or left-handed when the
offspring would have the same genetic
predisposition. In the European pond snail
Lymnaea peregra, a predominantly dextral
species whose handedness is maternally
determined, a brood might be expected to be
exclusively right- or left-handed—and this
often occurs. However, some broods
possess a
few snails of the opposing hand, and in
predominantly sinistral broods, the
incidence
of dextrality is surprisingly high.
Here, the
evolutionary theory must defer to a theory based
on an explicit
developmental mechanism that
can favor either right- or left-handedness. In the
case of
Lymnaea peregra, studies indicate that
a dextral gene is expressed during egg
formation; i.e., before egg fertilization, the
gene produces a protein, found in the
cytoplasm of the egg, that controls the
pattern of cell division and thus handedness. In
experiments, an injection of cytoplasm from
dextral eggs changes the pattern of
sinistral
eggs, but an injection from sinistral eggs does
not influence dextral eggs. One
explanation
for the differing effects is that all Lymnaea
peregra eggs begin left-handed
but most switch
to being right-handed. Thus, the path to a
solution to the puzzle of
handedness in all
snails appears to be as twisted as the helix
itself.
16. Which of the following would
serve as an example of “concomitant structural
features” that might disadvantage a snail of
the rarer form?
(A) A shell and body that are
an exact mirror image of a snail of the commoner
form
(B) A smaller population of the snails of
the rarer form
(C) A chip or fracture in the
shell caused by an object falling on it
(D) A
pattern on the shell that better camouflages it
(E) A smaller shell opening that restricts
mobility and ingestion relative to that of a
snail of the commoner form
29
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 1 of 2
17.
The second paragraph of the passage is primarily
concerned with offering possible
reasons why
(A) it is unlikely that evolutionary
mechanisms could discriminate against sinistral
snails
(B) sinistrality is relatively
uncommon among snail species
(C) dextral and
sinistral populations of a snail species tend to
intermingle
(D) a theory based on a
developmental mechanism inadequately accounts for
the
predominance of dextrality across snail
species
(E) dextral snails breed more readily
than sinistral snails, even within predominantly
sinistral populations
18. Which of
the following accurately describes the
relationship between the
evolutionary and
developmental theories discussed in the passage?
(A) Although the two theories reach the same
conclusion, each is based on different
assumptions.
(B) They present
contradictory explanations of the same phenomenon.
(C) The second theory accounts for certain
phenomena that the first cannot explain.
(D)
The second theory demonstrates why the first is
valid only for very unusual,
special cases.
(E) They are identical and interchangeable in
that the second theory merely restates
the
first in less technical terms.
19. It
can be inferred from the passage that a
predominantly sinistral snail species
might
stay predominantly sinistral for each of the
following reasons EXCEPT for
(A) a
developmental mechanism that affects the cell-
division pattern of snails
(B) structural
features that advantage dextral snails of the
species
(C) a relatively small number of
snails of the same hand for dextral snails of the
species to mate with
(D) anatomical
incompatibility that prevents mating between
snails of opposing hands
within the species
(E) geographic separation of sinistral and
dextral populations
30
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 1 of 2
Question 20 is based on this passage.
X-ray examination of a recently discovered
painting—judged by some authorities
to be a
self-portrait by Vincent van Gogh—revealed an
underimage of a woman’s face.
Either van Gogh
or another painter covered the first painting with
the portrait now seen
on the surface of the
canvas. Because the face of the woman in the
underimage also
appears on canvases van Gogh
is known to have painted, the surface painting
must be
an authentic self-portrait by van
Gogh.
20. The conclusion is properly
drawn if which of the following is assumed?
(A) If a canvas already bears a painted image
produced by an artist, a second artist
who
uses the canvas to produce a new painting tends to
be influenced by the style of
the first
artist.
(B) Many painted canvases that can be
reliably attributed to van Gogh contain
underimages of subjects that appear on that
least one other canvas that van Gogh is
known
to have painted.
(C) Any painted canvas
incorrectly attributed to van Gogh would not
contain an
underimage of a subject appears in
authentic paintings by that artist.
(D) A
painted canvas cannot be reliably attributed to an
artist unless the authenticity of
any
underimage that painting might contain can be
reliably attributed to the artist.
(E) A
painted canvas cannot be reliably attributed to a
particular artist unless a reliable
x-ray
examination of the painting is performed.
STOP. This is the end of Section 1.
31
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 2 of 2
SECTION 2
Verbal Reasoning
Time—30
minutes
20 Questions
For questions 1 to 6,
select one entry for each blank from the
corresponding
column of choices. Fill all
blanks in the way that best completes the text.
1. When she first came to France from
Bulgaria, she was hardly the ______ student
she late made herself out to be, since she had
access to considerable family wealth.
(A)
naïve
(B) precocious
(C) impecunious
(D) ambitious
(E) assiduous
2.
Researchers have observed chimpanzees feigning
injury in order to influence
other members of
the group, thus showing that the capacity to
______ is not uniquely
human.
(A)
cooperate
(B) instruct
(C) conspire
(D) dissemble
(E) dominate
3. At
their best, (i)______ book reviews are written in
defense of value and in the
tacit hope that
the author, having had his or her (ii)______
pointed out, might secretly
agree that the
book could be improved.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A)
abstruse
(B) adverse
(C) hortatory
(D) strengths
(E) transgressions
(F)
assumptions
32
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 2 of 2
4.
The gaps in existing accounts of the playwright’s
life are not (i)______, since
much of the
documentary evidence on which historians have
relied is (ii)______.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A)
trifling
(B) obvious
(C) implicit
(D) credible
(E) extant
(F) incomplete
5. That today’s students of American culture
tend to (i)______ classical music is
understandable. In our own time, American’s
musical high culture has degenerated into
a
formulaic entertainment divorced from the
contemporary moment. Thus, to miss out
on what
our orchestras are up to is not to (ii)______
much. In the late Gilded Age,
however, music
was widely esteemed as the “queen of the arts.”
Classical music was in
its American heyday,
(iii)______ the culture at large.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
Blank(iii)
(A) promote
(B)
reinterpret
(C) ignore
(D)
sacrifice
(E) appreciate
(F) malign
(G) antagonistic toward
(H) generally
rejected by
(I) centrally embedded in
6.
The serious study of popular culture by
intellectuals is regularly credited with
having rendered obsolete a once-dominant view
that popular culture is inherently
inferior to
high art. Yet this alteration of attitudes may be
somewhat (i)______.
Although it is now
academically respectable to analyze popular
culture, the fact that
many intellectuals feel
compelled to rationalize their own (ii)______
action movies or
mass-market fiction reveals,
perhaps unwittingly, their continued (iii)______
the old
hierarchy of high and low culture.
Blank(i) Blank(ii)
Blank(iii)
(A) counterproductive
(B)
underappreciated
(C) overstated
(D) penchant for
(E) distaste for
(G) aversion to
(H) investment in
(I)
misunderstanding of (F) indifference to
33
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 2 of 2
For
each of Questions 7 to 12, select one answer
choice unless otherwise directed.
Question 7
and 8 is based on this passage.
Despite hypotheses ranging from armed conflict
to climate change, the
abandonment of more
than 600 Pueblo cliff dwellings in Mesa Verde by
A.D. 1300 still
puzzles archaeologists.
Researchers analyzing refuse from one Pueblo
community
found remains of maize—a Pueblo
crop—in 44 percent of samples from years when
the community flourished, but in only 10
percent of samples from years near the time
of
depopulation, while the remains of wild plants
increased significantly.
Bones found in the
samples showed that the consumption of
domesticated
turkeys- which were fed
maize—decreased from 55 to 14 percent, while there
was a
marked increase in wild-animal bones.
These data suggest that near the end of the site’s
occupation, villagers experienced substantial
food shortage and adopted hunting-and-
gather
strategies to compensate for crop failure.
7. According to the passage, which of the
following is likely true regarding the
consumption of wild plants in the Pueblo
community investigated by researchers?
(A) It
decreased dramatically as the settlement began to
decline.
(B) It significantly affected the
food supply of wild animals living nearby.
(C)
It increased as domesticated sources of food
declined.
(D) It represented a continuation of
centuries-old traditions.
(E) It fell markedly
as the consumption of wild animals increased.
8. The researched described in the passage
most clearly supports which of the
following
claims about the abandonment of Mesa Verde?
(A) It likely resulted from factors affecting
crop viability.
(B) It was more extensive than
had previously been documented
(C) It may have
been hastened by the abundance of wild animals in
the area.
(D) It has been misdated by previous
archaeological research.
(E) it happened more
rapidly in certain Pueblo communities than in
others.
34
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 2 of 2
Questions 9 to 10 are based on this passage.
Although it is intuitively dear that an
increase in antipredator behavior lowers
animal’s risk of predation when predators are
present, such benefits are not easily
demonstrated. One study that did so found that
well-fed guppies arc more alert for
predators
and are consequently less likely to be killed than
are their hungry
counterparts, which feed with
greater intensity. It is also well documented that
a
decrease in activity lowers an animal’s risk
of predation by reducing the probability of
being detected or encountered by a predator.
This effect was convincingly
demonstrated by a
study in which it was found that partially
anesthetized tadpoles were
less likely to be
captured by dragonfly larvae than were
unanesthetized tadpoles.
Consider each of
the choices separately and select all that apply.
9. It can be inferred that the guppy study and
the tadpole study, as they are described
in
the passage, differed in which of the following
ways?
(A) The animals less likely to become
the victims of predators were the more active
ones in the guppy study but were the less
active ones in the tadpole study.
(B) The
animals less likely to become the victims of
predators were those more alert
to their
surroundings in the guppy study but were the less
alert ones in the tadpole
study.
(C) The
situation created experimentally for the guppy
study would be more likely to
occur in the
wild than would the situation created for the
tadpole study.
10. In the context
indicated, “demonstrated” most nearly means
(A) explained
(B) presented
(C) shown
(D) protested
(E) justified
35
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 2 of 2
Question 11 and 12 are based on this passage.
Since the 1980s, experts have been claiming
that the skill demands of today’s jobs
have
outstripped the skills workers possess. Moss and
Tilly counter that worker
deficiencies lie
less in job-specific skills than in such
attributes as motivation,
interpersonal
skills, and appropriate work demeanor. However,
Handel suggests that
these perceived
deficiencies are merely an age effect, arguing
that workers pass
through a phase of early
adulthood characterized by weak attachment to
their jobs. As
they mature, workers grow out
of casual work attitudes and adjust to the
workplace
norms of jobs that they are more
interested in retaining. Significantly, complaints
regarding younger workers have persisted for
over two decades, but similar complaints
regarding older workers have no grown as the
earlier cohorts aged.
11. The passage
suggest that Moss and Tilly are most likely to
disagree with the
“experts” about which of the
following?
(A) Whether the skills demanded by
jobs in the labor market have changed since the
1980s.
(B) Whether employers think that
job-specific skills are as important as such
attributes
as motivation and appropriate work
demeanor.
(C) Whether workers in today’s labor
market generally live up to the standards and
expectations of employers.
(D) Whether
adequate numbers of workers in the labor market
possess the particular
skills demanded by
various different jobs.
(E) Whether most
workers are motivated to acquire new skills that
are demanded by
the labor market.
12.
The last sentence serves primarily to
(A)
suggest that worker deficiencies are likely to
become more pronounced in the
future.
(B)
introduce facts that Handel may have failed to
take into account
(C) cite evidence supporting
Handel’s argument about workers
(D) show that
the worker deficiencies cited by Handel are more
than an age effect
(E) distinguish certain
skills more commonly possessed by young workers
from skills
more commonly found among mature
workers.
36
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 2 of 2
For
questions 13 to 16, select the two answer choices
that, when used to complete
the sentence, fit
the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce
completed
sentences that are alike in meaning.
13. Britain is attractive to worldwide
advertisers because it is ______ market, so there
is no need to tailor advertisements for
different parts of the country.
(A) a global
(B) an uncomplicated
(C) a vast
(D) a
homogeneous
(E) a uniform
(F) an immense
14. The band’s long-standing strategy of
laying leisurely explorations atop a steady
funk beat has proven to be surprisingly
______: a concert in Cologne from 1972
sounds
as if it could have taken place today.
(A)
fortuitous
(B) foresighted
(C) prescient
(D) popular
(E) serendipitous
(F)
lucrative
15. Factory production made an
absence of imperfections so blandly commonplace
that the ______ of hand-produced goods were
now cherished where they once might
have been
shunned.
(A) advantages
(B) revivals
(C) benefits
(D) pretentious
(E)
blemishes
(F) defects
37
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 2 of 2
16.
Through its state associations, the American
Medical Association controlled who
could
become a physician and dominated ______
professions like nursing and
occupational
therapy.
(A) commensurate
(B)
proportionate
(C) kindred
(D) affiliated
(E) imperative
(F) voluntary
38
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 2 of 2
For
each of Questions 17 to 20, select one answer
choice unless otherwise directed.
Questions 17
to 20 are based on this passage.
In the early twentieth century, the idea that
pianists should be musician-scholars
whose
playing reflected the way composers wanted their
music to sound replaced the
notion that
pianists should be virtuosos whose performances
thrilled audiences with
emotional daring and
showy displays of technique. One important figure
to emerge in
the period, though a
harpsichordist rather than a pianist, was Wanda
Landowska(1879-
1959). She demonstrated how the
keyboard works of Baroque composers such as Bach,
Handel, Scarlatti, and Couperin probably
sounded in their own times. It would be a
mistake to consider Landowska a classicist,
however. She had been born in an age of
Romantic playing dominated by Liszt,
Leschetizky, and their pupils. Thus she grew up
with and was influenced by certain Romantic
traditions of performance, whatever the
stringency of her musical scholarship;
Landowska knew how to hold audiences
breathless, and when she gave recitals, they
responded with deathlike silence and rapt
attention.
Her playing was Romantic, but
it was at least as close in spirit to the style of
playing intended by composers of the
Baroque(1600-1750) and Classical (1750-1830)
eras, as have been the more exacting but less
emotionally resonant interpretations of
most
harpsichordists since Landowska. She had a
miraculous quality of touch, a
seemingly
autonomous left hand; no artist in her generation
could clarify with such
deftness the
polyphonic writing of the Baroque masters. And
none could make their
music so spring to life.
Her achievements were the result of a lifetime
of scholarship, truly remarkable
physical
gifts, and resilient rhythm, all combined with
excellent judgment about when
not to hold the
printed note sacrosanct. Of course, developing
such judgment
demanded considerable experience
and imagination. She was a genius at underlining
the dramatic and emotional content of a piece,
and to do so, she took liberties, all kinds
of
liberties, while nevertheless preserving the
integrity of a composer’s score. In short,
her
entire musical approach was Romantic: intensely
personal, full of light and shade,
never
pedantic.
Thanks to Landowska, Bach’s music
(originally composed for the harpsichord)
now
sounded inappropriately thick when played on the
piano. One by one, pianists
stopped playing
Bach’s music as adapted for the piano by Liszt or
by Tausig. Then they
gradually stopped
performing any kind of Baroque music on the piano,
even Scarlatti’s.
The piano repertoire, it
began to be felt, was extensive enough without
reverting to
transcriptions of Baroque music
originally written for the harpsichord- and piano
performances of Bach and Scarlatti were,
despite the obvious similarities between the
harpsichord and the piano, transcriptions, no
matter how faithfully the original notes
were
played. In accordance with this kind of purism
came an emphasis on studying
composers’
manuscript notations, a relatively new field of
musicology that is
flourishing even today.
17. The passage suggests that Landowska’s
playing embodied a rejection of which of
the
following?
(A) Emotionally resonant
interpretations of musical works.
(B) An
audience’s complete silence during a performance.
(C) Performances of previously obscure Baroque
works.
(D) The idea that a performer can
correctly judge when not to hold the printed note
sacrosanct.
(E) Performances emphasizing
showy displays of technique that compromise the
integrity of a composer’s original score.
39
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GRE Mock Test 2: Section 2 of 2
18.
which of the following can be inferred from the
passage about the compositions
(A) They were
adapted by Liszt and Tautig.
(B) They have not
been transcribed faithfully.
(C) They were not
composed during the Baroque period.
(D) They
were composed for instruments other than piano.
(E) They fell out of favor with most musicians
in the early twentieth century.
19. The
passage suggests that Landowska would probably
have objected most
strongly to which of the
following?
(A) A performance of Bach keyboard
piece played on the harpsichord.
(B) A
performance of a Handel organ piece on a Baroque
pipe organ.
(C) A modern composition written
for a harpsichord and two pianos.
(D) A piano
solo in which the performer occasionally depart
from the tempo indicated
by the composer.
(E) A performance of a piano and violin sonata
in which the piano part U played on
the
harpsichord.
20. The author’s assertion
that Landowska should not be considered a
classicist serves
primarily to emphasize which
of the following?
(A) Landowska specialized in
playing the works of composers of the Baroque era.
(B) Landowska’s repertoire included orchestral
music only.
(C) Landowska’s musical
performances were not devoid of emotion.
(D)
Landowska’s repertoire emphasized works of long-
lasting interest and value.
(E) Landowska
advocated the study of Classical style or form.
STOP. This is the end of Section 2.
40
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GRE Mock Test 3
Graduate Record Examination
Mock
Test 3
2 Verbal Reasoning
Sections
Time: 60 minutes
41
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GRE Mock Test 3: Section 1 of 2
SECTION 1
Verbal Reasoning
Time—30
minutes
20 Questions
For questions 1 to 6,
select one entry for each blank from the
corresponding
column of choices. Fill all
blanks in the way that best completes the text.
1. The name of the Sloane Matthew Library has
long been ______ even longtime
city
residents assume it is a run-of-the-mill library,
never suspecting what art treasures
it
contains.
A. reversed
B. proposed
C.
misleading
D. elevated
E. intriguing
2. although economic growth has conventionally
been viewed as the ______ for
poverty in
underdeveloped regions, this prescriptions’
negative environmental side
effects a re
becoming a concern.
A. culprit
B. recipe
C. panacea
D. explanation
E. refuge
3. even as the economy struggled, the
secretary stood by his ______ long-term
outlook, saying that technology was allowing
business to make deep-rooted
improvements in
their productivity, the best indicator of an
economy’s ability to grow
A. arcane
B.
sanguine
C. equivocal
D. ambivalent
E.
irresolute
42
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GRE Mock Test 3: Section 1 of 2
4.
The villas and compounds that proliferated during
the building boom of the 1990s
were (i)______,
far too (ii)______ for people of average means.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A) opulent
(B) eclectic
(C) enigmatic
(D) bucolic
(E)
expensive
(F) mundane
5. The governor has
considerable political talents, but as a speaker
he is far less
(i)______ than his opponent,
whose oratorical skills are (ii)______.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A) adroit (D) unpretentious
(E)
spurious
(F) breathtaking
(B)
unconvincing
(C) prolix
6.
There is no point in combing through the
director’s work for hints of ideological
significance. It is unnecessary: his ideology
— Marxist, anti-imperialist, aligned with
the
perceived interests of the powerless and the
marginal — is the (i)______ of his
films. The
clarity and force of that ideology are
considerable, but its (ii)______
sometimes
bothers critics, who often scold the director for
lacking (iii)______.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
Blank(iii)
(A) hidden focus
(B) chief impetus
(C) murky lesson
(D) bluntness
(E) obscurity
(F)
feebleness
(G) lucidity
(H) subtlety
(I) courage
43
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GRE Mock Test 3: Section 1 of 2
For
each of Questions 7 to 12, select one answer
choice unless otherwise directed.
Question 7
is based on this passage.
Despite a dramatic increase in the number of
people riding bicycles for recreation
in
Parkville, a recent report by the Parkville
Department of Transportation shows that
the
number of accidents involving bicycles has
decreased for the third consecutive
year.
7. Which of the following, if true during the
last three years, best reconciles the
apparent
discrepancy in the facts?
(A) The Parkville
Department of Recreation confiscated abandoned
bicycles and sold
them at auction to any
interested Parkville residents.
(B) Increased
automobile and bus traffic in Parkville had been
the leading cause of the
most recent increase
in automobile accidents.
(C) Because of the
local increase in the number of people bicycling
for recreation,
many out-of-town bicyclists
ride in the Parkville area.
(D) The Parkville
Police Department enforced traffic rules for
bicycle riders much
more vigorously and began
requiring recreational riders to pass a bicycle
safety course.
(E) The Parkville Department of
Transportation canceled a program that required
all
bicycles to be inspected and registered
each year.
44
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GRE Mock Test 3: Section 1 of 2
Question 8 to 10 are based on this passage.
What makes a worker ant perform one particular
task rather than another? From
the 1970s to
the mid-1980s, researchers emphasized internal
factors within individual
ants, such as
polymorphism, the presence in the nest of workers
of different shapes and
sizes, each suited to
a particular task. Other elements then considered
to have primary
influence upon an ant’s career
were its age-it might change tasks as it got
older-and its
genetics. However, subsequent
ant researchers have focused on external prompts
for
behavior. In advocating this approach,
Deborah Gordon cites experiments in which
intervention in a colony’s makeup perturbed
worker activity. By removing workers or
otherwise altering the nest conditions,
researchers were able to change the tasks
performed by individual workers.
Consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply.
8. According to the
passage, which of the following factors were
considered from
the 1970s to the mid-1980s to
influence the division of labor among a colony’s
worker
ants?
(A) Ants’ inherited traits
(B) The age of the ants
(C) The ants’
experiences outside the nest
Consider
each of the choices separately and select all that
apply.
9. It can be inferred from the passage
that Gordon and earlier researchers would
agree with which of the following statements
about worker ants?
(A) Disruption of the nest
can affect workers’ roles.
(B) Genetics
predominates over other factors in determining a
worker ant’s role.
(C) An individual worker’s
tasks can change during its lifetime.
Consider each of the choices separately and
select all that apply.
10. The last sentence
has which of the following functions in the
passage?
(A) It explains how the experiments
performed by Gordon differed from those
performed by earlier researchers.
(B) It
justifies the methodology of the experiments cited
by Gordon.
(C) It gives details showing how
the experiments cited by Gordon support her
position.
45
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GRE Mock Test 3: Section 1 of 2
Questions 11 and 12 are based on this passage.
This passage is adapted from material
published in 2001.
In 1998 scientists using
the neutrino detector in Kamioka, Japan, were able
to
observe several thousand neutrinos—elusive,
tiny subatomic particles moving at nearly
the
speed of light and passing through almost
everything in their path. The Kamioka
findings
have potentially far-reaching ramifications. They
strongly suggest that the
neutrino hat mass,
albeit an infinitesimal amount. Even a tiny mass
means that
neutrinos would outweigh all the
universe’s visible matter, because of their vast
numbers. The findings also suggest that a
given neutrino does not have one stable mass
or one stable identity; instead it oscillates
from one identity or “flavor” (physicists’
term describing how neutrinos interact with
other particles) to another. This oscillation
may explain why, although the Sun is a large
source of neutrinos, detectors capture far
fewer solar neutrinos than the best theory of
solar physics predicts: the neutrinos may
be
changing to flavors undetectable by detectors.
Finally, while the standard particle-
physics
model—which describes all matter in terms of
twelve fundamental particles
and four
fundamental forces—does not allow for neutrinos
with mass, there are
theories that do. Further
experiments to confirm that neutrinos have mass
could help
physicists determine which, if any.
of these theories is correct.
11. The
primary purpose of the passage is to
(A)
evaluate the merits of a particular theory in
light of new evidence
(B) discuss scientists’
inability to account for certain unexpected
discoveries
(C) point out certain shortcomings
in a long-standing theory
(D) compare several
alternative explanations for a particular
phenomenon
(E) consider some implications of
certain scientific findings
12. According
to the passage, one significant implication of the
discovery that
neutrinos have mass is that
such a discovery would
(A) cast doubt on the
solar origins of many of the neutrinos that reach
Earth
(B) help to establish the validity of
the standard particle-physics model
(C)
indicate that most of the visible matter of the
universe is composed of neutrinos
(D) entail
that the total weight of all the visible matter in
the universe is less than that
of all the
neutrinos in the universe
(E) mean that the
speed with which neutrinos normally move can be
slowed by certain
types of matter
46
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GRE Mock Test 3: Section 1 of 2
For
questions 13 to 16, select the two answer choices
that, when used to complete
the sentence, fit
the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce
completed
sentences that are alike in meaning.
13. In a strong indication of the way the
entire party is ______ the candidate with
moderate credentials, the outspokenly
conservative former mayor of a major city has
promised to raise a substantial amount of
money for the candidate’s campaign.
(A)
rallying behind
(B) incensed over
(C)
undecided about
(D) mortified over
(E)
embarrassed about
(F) coalescing around
14. Mr. Hirsch says he will aim to preserve
the foundation’s support of ______
thinkers,
individuals who are going against the trends in a
field or an acknowledged set
of opinions.
(A) iconoclastic
(B) integrative
(C)
doctrinaire
(D) heterodox
(E) dogmatic
(F) synthesizing
15. In France
cultural subsidies are ______: producers of just
about any film can get
an advance from the
government against box-office receipts, even
though most such
loans are never fully repaid.
(A) ubiquitous
(B) invaluable
(C)
sporadic
(D) scanty
(E) questionable
(F) omnipresent
47
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GRE Mock Test 3: Section 1 of 2
16.
The problem of avoiding duplicate names—such as
for Internet domain names or
for e-mail—is
particularly______ when the name has to fit into a
format that allows
only a finite number of
possibilities.
(A) meager
(B) acute
(C) agreeable
(D) severe
(E)
beneficial
(F) productive
For each of
Questions 17 to 20, select one answer choice
unless otherwise directed.
Question 17 is
based on the passage.
Mayor: Four years ago, when we reorganized the
city police department in order
to save money,
critics claimed that the reorganization would make
the police less
responsive to citizens and
would thus lead to more crime. The police have
compiled
theft statistics from the years
following the reorganization that show that the
critics
were wrong. There was an overall
decrease in reports of thefts of all kinds,
including
small thefts.
17. Which of
the following, if true, most seriously challenges
the mayor’s argument?
(A) When city police are
perceived as unresponsive, victims of theft are
less likely to
report thefts to the police.
(B) The mayor’s critics generally agree that
police statistics concerning crime reports
provide the most reliable available data on
crime rates.
(C) In other cities where police
departments have been similarly reorganized, the
numbers of reported thefts have generally
risen following reorganization.
(D) The
mayor’s reorganization of the police department
failed to save as much
money as it was
intended to save.
(E) During the four years
immediately preceding the reorganization, reports
of all
types of theft had been rising steadily
in comparison to reports of other crimes.
48
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GRE Mock Test 3: Section 1 of 2
Question 18 to 20 are based on this passage.
The binary planet hypothesis—that Earth and
the Moon formed simultaneously by
the
accretion of smaller objects—does not explain why
the Moon’s iron core is so
small relative to
the Moon’s total volume, compared with Earth’s
core relative to
Earth’s total volume.
According to the giant-impact hypothesis, the Moon
was created
during a collision between Earth
and a large object about the size of Mars.
Computer
simulations of this impact show that
both of the objects would melt in the impact and
the dense core of the impactor would fall as
molten rock into the liquefied iron core of
Earth. The ejected matter—mantle rock that had
surrounded the cores of both objects—
would be
almost devoid of iron. This matter would become
the Moon.
Consider each of the choices
separately and select all that apply.
18.
According to the passage, the binary planet
hypothesis holds that
(A) Earth and the Moon
were formed at the same time.
(B) smaller
objects joined together to form the Earth and the
Moon
(C) the Moon’s core is the same absolute
size as Earth’s core
19. The giant-impact
hypothesis as described in the passage answers all
of the
following questions EXCEPT:
(A)
What happened to the rock that surrounded the
impactor’s core after the impactor
hit Earth?
(B) What happened to the impactor’s core after
the impactor hit Earth?
(C) Where did the
impactor that collided with Earth originate?
(D) Why is the Moon’s iron core small relative
to that of Earth?
(E) What was the size of the
impactor relative to the Mars?
20. Which
of the following best describes the organization
of the passage?
(A) The development of one
theory into another is outlined.
(B) Two
explanations are provided, both of which are
revealed as inadequate.
(C) A theory is
presented, and then evidence that undermines that
theory is discussed.
(D) Similarities and
differences between two theories are described.
(E) A flawed hypothesis is introduced, and
then an alternative hypothesis is presented.
STOP. This is the end of Section 1.
49
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GRE Mock Test 3: Section 2 of 2
SECTION 2
Verbal Reasoning
Time—30
minutes
20 Questions
For questions 1 to 6,
select one entry for each blank from the
corresponding
column of choices. Fill all
blanks in the way that best completes the text.
1. In searching for norms in the sense of
authoritative standards of what ought to be,
rather than in the sense of what is average
and thus can be considered normal,
normative
ethics aims to ______.
(A) predict
(B)
mitigate
(C) question
(D) dictate
(E)
personalize
2. In his unexpurgated
autobiography, Mark Twain commented freely on the
flaws
and foibles of his country, making some
observations so ______ that his heirs and
editors feared they would damage Twain’s
reputation if not withheld.
(A) buoyant
(B) acerbic
(C) premonitory
(D)
laudatory
(E) temperate
3. That the
artist chose to remain in his hometown does not
mean that he remained
(i)______; on the
contrary, he (ii)______the international artistic
movements of his
day.
Blank(i)
Blank(ii)
(A) provincial
(B) capricious
(C)
obstinate
(D) knew nothing about
(E)
made light of
(F) kept abreast of
50
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