2018年3月昆明市统测英语试题
老气横秋-七夕情人节图片
2018年3月昆明市高三复习教学质量检测
英 语
第I卷
第一部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题：每小题2分，满分30分）
A
This 3-Day
Basic Mountaineering Skills course will teach you
how to dress for winter,
how to pack and
choose food, how to cook outdoors, how to move
smoothly in winter
boots, and how to climb low
to mid-sized angled snow and ice terrain (地形).
This is a comprehensive introduction to
winter mountaineering skills. No previous climbing
experience is required
for registration but
participants should be prepared for a challenging
experience. The first day will be spent outdoors
learning technical skills, returning to town
for the evening. Day 2 we will meet at IMCS, sort
and pack equipment,
decide on food and prepare
ourselves to head up to Mount Washington where we
will set up camps, cook dinner and
spend the
night. We plan to reach the mountaintop on the 3rd
day. Snow conditions and assessing weather are a
big
part of mountaineering and this course.
Each day's schedule may change due to weather and
snow conditions.
Our goal is to help you to
become a more experienced and responsible winter
mountaineer. Your safety in the
mountains
depends on the decisions you make. This course is
a solid first step for climbers interested in
climbing the
greater mountain ranges of the
world. The course outline is flexible and
dependent upon the weather, ground
conditions
and abilities of the participants.
The dates
for the 2018 - 2019 winter season 3-Day Basic
Mountaineering Skills course are:
∆ December
27 - 29, 2018 (Thursday - Saturday)
∆ January
13-15, 2019 (Sunday - Tuesday)
∆ January 26 -
28, 2019 (Saturday - Monday)
∆ February 9 -
11, 2019 (Saturday - Monday)
∆ March 9 - 11,
2019 (Saturday - Monday)
∆ March 23-25, 2019
(Saturday - Monday)
This course can also be
arranged privately, please contact IMCS for
details.
1. What is the course plan for the
2nd day?
A. To learn technical mountaineering
skills. B. To reach the mountaintop.
C. To prepare to climb Mount Washington.
D. To assess natural conditions.
2. When will
you be able to attend this course?
A. On
December 13, 2018. B. On
January 15, 2018.
C. On March 22, 2019.
D. On February 9, 2019.
3. What's the course
about?
A. Knowing more about climbing.
B. Introducing a climbing school.
C. Providing
a fixed timetable to climb. D.
Recommending climbing equipment.
B
Medha
Gupta sometimes felt worried making the 20-minute
walk from the comer where the school bus dropped
her off to her home in Hemdon, Va. —
especially during the colder months in winter.
Her mother, Divya Gupta had a suggestion:
Write an app. She was half-kidding, but Medha took
the challenge
seriously. So she went to work.
The result was Safe Travel, an app designed by
Medha to help walkers feel more secure when
traveling alone. Using
the iPhone, a
person can program it to send a warning to someone
he or she trusts if he or she fails to arrive at a
destination within a certain time.
It was
the first iOS app that Medha had created. While
she didn't think much would come from the project,
her
effort caught the eye of judges for the
annual Congressional App Challenge, who selected
her as the winner for
Virginia's 10th
District.
The App Challenge is designed to
encourage students to consider careers in science,
technology, engineering, and
math by
experimenting with coding and computer science.
Winning students are invited to attend a reception
on
Capitol Hill in April and also received
$$250 in Amazon Web Service credits.
Medha said
it took her about 40 hours to design, program and
test the app. As for her next app? Medha's not
certain. She temporarily has her app-
development ambitions on hold because she's busy
teaching herself artificial
intelligence to
help deal with improper words on Facebook. Yes,
she knows that there are teams of engineers
probably
doing the same thing. But she figures
it can't hurt her own part, too.
stopping
us from doing something is ourselves.
4. Why
did Medha Gupta feel worried?
A. It took a
long time to walk home. B. It was colder
than ever in winter.
C. It was unsafe to walk
home alone. D. It was difficult to write
an app.
5. What does the underlined phrase
A. Delayed. B. Developed.
6. What is Medha's attitude to the challenge?
A. Curious. B. Sensitive. C.
Uncertain. D. Optimistic.
7. What's
the main idea of the text?
A. Medha registered
for the App Challenge.
B. Medha designed Safe
Travel successfully.
C. The App Challenge
directs students how to choose careers.
D. An
app guides walkers home.
C
Spaniards
(西班牙人) have their own dining timeline which is
very different from most countries. Breakfast in
the
Spanish culture is easily the least
important meal of the day, occurring first thing
in the morning until about 10:00 am.
Many
Spaniards skip breakfast but if they do have
breakfast, it will likely be something light and
simple which may
consist of coffee, hot
chocolate or fresh squeezed orange juice
accompanied by a piece of toast with jam. After
such a
light breakfast, from around 10:30 am
to noon, bars are full of workers for their
morning coffee breaks enjoying a drink
and a
small snack to help them survive until lunch time.
Lunch, the most important meal of the day,
generally consists of several courses starting
with a light first course
such as soup or
salad, a heavier second course of meat or fish,
fruit or dessert, followed by bread and also wine
and
water.
Lunch and the famous nap (打盹)
time occur from 2 pm until 4 pm. Most shops and
companies close during this
time to allow
their workers to make their way home to eat.
Although this pause still exists, the famous nap
time is rarely
used for sleeping but rather
transportation as people gradually live farther
and farther away from their workplaces.
Due to
this midday lunch break, many workers do not leave
their work until around 8 pm. Typically, this is
when
they will have a small snack to get them
through until dinner time. Dinner, similar to
lunch but usually lighter, is a late
affair in
Spain which is normally served from 9 pm to 10:30
pm. In the summer time it is common to see
Spaniards
sitting down to eat as late as 12
pm!
8. Which is usually served after soup at
lunch?
A. A glass of juice. B. A cup of
wine.
A. From 2 pm to 4 pm.
C. A piece of steak. D. A plate of salad.
B. From 4 pm to 8 pm.
9. When do most
shops and companies keep open after lunch in
Spain?
C. Suspected. D. Satisfied.
C. From 2 pm to 9 pm.
10. What can we learn from the text?
D.
From 9pm to 12pm.
A. Spaniards are too busy to
have breakfast.
B. Spaniards usually have a
nap for 2 hours.
C. Spaniards usually finish
their work at 9 pm.
D. Spaniards think their
lunch the most important.
11. What could be
the best title for the text?
A. A Busy Workday
of the Spanish
C. Unique Dining
Customs in Spain
B. Foods Served at
Meals in Spain
D. Comfortable Life of the
Spanish
D
Bats are the only mammals (哺乳动物)
that can fly a great distance, but they have
another ability. Many bats live a
very long
time for an animal of their size. European
researchers are studying bats to understand why
they live so long.
They hope to make
discoveries aimed at fighting the aging process in
human beings.
Last week, the group of
scientists said they had discovered important
biological qualities in some bat species. The
group studied bat chromosomes (染色体). The
scientists were most interested in structures
connected to the ends of
the chromosomes. They
are called telomeres (端粒), which shorten each time
a cell divides. The scientists believe this
shortening process causes cells to break down.
They say this is what causes aging.
The
European researchers studied 493 bats from four
bat species. The group used information that had
been
gathered over more than 60 years. Of
these animals, the greater mouse-eared bat
generally lived an average of 37 years.
The
scientists said it had telomeres that did not
shorten with age. Another Myotis bat holds the
record for oldest age,
reaching 41 years. The
scientists' findings suggest that these bats'
cells have the ability to keep and repair their
telomeres. This, they said, helps guard
against the aging process.
Based on its body
size, a bat like the greater mouse-eared bat would
be expected to live four years. But, these
mammals have been found to live nearly 10
times longer than that. The scientists found that
only 19 species of
mammals live longer than
humans when their body size is considered.
Eighteen of these are bats. The only exception is
an unusual African rat.
12. What decides
bats' aging process according to the text?
A.
The length of telomeres.
C. The
types of chromosomes.
A. 19 years.
B. 37 years.
14. We can learn from the
text that _____.
A. the scientists have
studied bats for more than six decades
B.
nineteen kinds of bats could live longer than
humans
C. the bats studied in the research are
of the same species
D. researchers focus on
finding out why humans live long
15. In which
column of a magazine can you read the text?
A.
Lifestyle. B. Business. C.
Science. D. Fashion.
第二节
(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Failing an exam can make someone feel really
bad about themselves, not to mention embarrassed.
A lot of people
who fail an exam might think
that failing an exam makes them a failure in life.
16
● Don't make fun of them. Failing a test
can be a seriously upset thing. And even if they
seem okay about it, they
might be hiding how
they really feel. Don't make fun of them for
failing. 17
● Remind them that everyone
fails at some point. 18 So tell them not
everyone can succeed every time, even
if they
don't talk about it. Help them deal with their
feelings about the failure by reminding them that
everyone fails,
B. The body size of the bat.
D. The building of cell.
C. 41 years.
D. 60 years.
13. How long does a greater
mouse-eared bat generally live?
and
this one failure doesn't influence them.
●
19 Right after they've failed an exam, it's easy
to feel like they'll never do anything well again.
If you know
someone who has failed the same
test or exam, but then became successful, tell
them about it! It can remind them that
good
things will happen again, too.
● Help them
figure out new ways to study. Ask how long they
studied, how often they took notes in class, and
if
they ever felt like they weren't doing
enough. Help them look up studying methods on
websites, and select methods
they haven't
tried before. 20 Using a new method can lead
to different results.
A. Tell them to stay the
same.
B. Offer them positive examples.
C.
It's necessary for them to know that.
D. Or
don't compare their score to yours.
E. Share
some ways that you find successful.
F. It
doesn't mean that you are a failure in life.
G. But there are lots of ways you can
encourage and help them.
笫二部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节
完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
A few years ago I
chose a
21
I planned to give a gift
each day for the 22 year. Some gifts would
take time to prepare, but some of the
other
gifts came about more 23 , such as helping
someone cross the street. But either way, I always
tried to seek
a(n) 24 to serve.
Some
gifts in 2014 25 reading to my next door's
kids. I 26 reading as my gift of the day. My
mind is still
crowded with precious 27
now.
Twice I 28 a few cents on the
sidewalk for a kid to find. It may have cost a few
29 , but I considered it a
chance to 30
another person's day. Along the way, I also made
my own day pleasant.
One of my most 31
gifts throughout the whole year was letting other
32 go ahead of me in line at
stores. For the
sixth time, 33 standing in line at a store one
day, my son told me somebody 34 us had only
two things to 35 . 1 waved to the person to
take our place in line. The few 36 minutes of
wait time passed
with my hardly realizing it.
They were minutes passing 37 .
Although
this act of 38 didn't deserve something
surprising, it remains one of my 39 gifts of
2014 —
and all because I saw how my 40 to
give had become part of my children's lives as
well.
21. A. luck B. gift
C. health D. money
D. final
D. naturally
D. excuse
D. put away
D. memories
D. forgot
D. goods
D.
appreciate
D. repeated
22. A. entire
B. same
23. A. formally
B. regularly
24. A. job
B. routine
25. A. involved
B. suggested
27. A. events
28. A. abandoned
29. A. coins
30. A. shorten
26. A. turned
down B. looked on
B. changes
B. made
B. checks
B. brighten
C. previous
C. gradually
C. opportunity
C. took in
C. motivations
C. left
C. books
C. start
C. expected
C. required D. kept
31. A.
expensive B. available
33.
A. while
34. A. beyond
32. A. friends B. relatives
C. customers
B. once
C. since
B. behind
D. managers
D. though
D. next to
D. share
C. ahead of
C.
purchase 35. A. donate B.
serve
36. A. necessary
B. endless
37. A. rapidly
B. slowly
38. A. uniting
B. progressing
39. A. extreme
B. favorite
40. A. ability
B. arrangement
C. urgent
D. extra
C. casually
C.
receiving
C. strangest
C. choice
D. painfully
D. giving
D. richest
D. hesitation
第II卷
第二部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第二节
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
In the
closing ceremony of the Olympic Winter Games
PyeongChang 2018, China put on You in Beijing in
(perform) from Beijing Sport University. Two
of 43. (they) dressed as
performance
reviewed China's ancient times, 44.
(show) the country's rich cultural heritage
(遗产) and singing about the present, as well as the
future that lies ahead. In
addition to 45.
(tradition) symbols including the Great Wall and
lucky animals like the Chinese dragon
and the
Chinese phoenix, the performance also showed
China's recent engineering and technological
achievements,
such as its wide high-speed rail
network 46. its space program. Towards the
end of the performance, the
Olympic rings 47.
(rise) on the stage, as well as images of a global
village, children's smiling faces, olive (橄榄)
branches and plum blossoms (梅花), 48.
stood for China's promise to promote global
peace and building a better future for mankind.
Finally, the skaters
travelled a path on ice
49. (draw) the
The performance
50. (success) sent Chinese people's
goodwill and invitations to the world for
Beijing 2022.
2022directed 41. Zhang
Yimou. The show centered on the talents of a team
of 24 roller-skating 42.
第三部分
写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
This weekend I realized a fantastic dream: I
was dressed as Mickey Mouse and wander along the
streets of
downtown doing a random act of
kindness. I was quite unsure why people would like
it. But after the brief hesitation, I
took a
handful of
smiles, free hugs, and photos
brought a city of stranger together. We shared a
moment of cosplay and happy. I even
danced
with the crowd. Certain, it was an interesting
experience! I would thank for those who encouraged
I to
experience this kind act. All the cards,
candies and clothes donated by them.
第二节
书面表达（满分25分）
假定你是李华。某英文报社向即将毕业的高中生征稿，
主题是“向成年出发”，请你根据下列要求完成短
文：
1. 你的心情；
注意:
2. 你的人生规划（学业、事业等方面）。
1. 词数100左右; 2.
可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
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